Act5.3.42
Along with the current theme I seem to be on (feminism), why on earth would a woman have to be killed in order to appease a man's feelings? Shakespeare seems determined to promote that women can be dealt with any way possible. Having Lavinia killed by her own father, showed how selfish Titus was as well as his death-grip control over his daughter. Lavinia, having no say, literally, in the matter is killed abruptly. From that point, the reader does not really have any time to recover because a few lines down three murders happen right after the other. Obviously, Shakespeare thought very little about damsels in distress.
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